[Aug-2022] 100% Actual CAPM dumps Q&As with Explanations Verified & Correct Answers
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Preparation Process
The candidates planning to complete the PMI CAPM exam can find a variety of useful study materials on the official website. It is recommended that the learners start their preparation for the test by viewing its content outline and the CAPM handbook. These two documents will help them get an idea of what the certification exam is about and how to structure their prep process most efficiently. It is also advised that the applicants look through ‘A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) – Sixth Edition’ for a better understanding of the exam content.
Besides that, to help the students build the required knowledge base for the exam, the official platform offers the formal course provided by the Authorized Training Partners or local PMI communities. The details of this option can be found on the certification webpage. At the end of preparation, the applicants are recommended to use the CAPM Sample Questions to check their readiness for the actual test.
NEW QUESTION 324
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?
- A. Project calendars
- B. Project document updates
- C. Activity attributes
- D. Activity list
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation:
6.2.3.2 Activity Attributes
Activities, distinct from milestones, have durations, during which the work of that activity is performed, and may have resources and costs associated with that work. Activity attributes extend the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity. The components for each activity evolve over time. During the initial stages of the project, they include the activity identifier (ID), WBS ID, and activity label or name, and when completed, may include activity codes, activity description, predecessor activities, successor activities, logical relationships, leads and lags (Section 6.3.2.3), resource requirements, imposed dates, constraints, and assumptions. Activity attributes can be used to identify the person responsible for executing the work, geographic area, or place where the work has to be performed, the project calendar the activity is assigned to, and activity type such as level of effort (often abbreviated as LOE), discrete effort, and apportioned effort. Activity attributes are used for schedule development and for selecting, ordering, and sorting the planned schedule activities in various ways within reports. The number of attributes varies by application area.
Process: 6.2 Define Activities
Definition: The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is to break down work packages into activities that provide a basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, monitoring, and controlling the project work.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Scope baseline
3. Enterprise environmental factors
4. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Decomposition
2. Rolling wave planning
3. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Activity list
2. Activity attributes
3. Milestone list
NEW QUESTION 325
In a preliminary meeting for a project, team members decide to execute the project with agile methodology. A finance team member wants to know how project cost will be determined at this early stage.
How will the project team determine project cost?
- A. Use a detailed cost estimation for agile projects
- B. Retrieve a budget from a previous project and create a baseline for this project based on it
- C. Use a lightweight cost estimation due to the nature of agile projects
- D. Use a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS) to get cost estimation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 326
Decomposition, rolling wave planning, and templates are all tools and techniques for which of the following?
- A. Estimate Activity Durations
- B. Sequence Activities
- C. Develop Schedule
- D. Define Activities
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
5.4.2.1 Decomposition
Decomposition is a technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts. The work package is the work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed. The level of decomposition is often guided by the degree of control needed to effectively manage the project. The level of detail for work packages will vary with the size and complexity of the project. Decomposition of the total project work into work packages generally involves the following activities:
Identifying and analyzing the deliverables and related work;
Structuring and organizing the WBS;
Decomposing the upper WBS levels into lower-level detailed components;
Developing and assigning identification codes to the WBS components; and
Verifying that the degree of decomposition of the deliverables is appropriate.
6.2.2.2 Rolling Wave Planning
Rolling wave planning is an iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level. It is a form of progressive elaboration.
Therefore, work can exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle. During early strategic planning, when information is less defined, work packages may be decomposed to the known level of detail. As more is known about the upcoming events in the near term, work packages can be decomposed into activities.
Process: 6.2 Define Activities
Definition: The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is to break down work packages into activities that provide a basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, monitoring, and controlling the project work.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Scope baseline
3. Enterprise environmental factors
4. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Decomposition
2. Rolling wave planning
3. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Activity list
2. Activity attributes
3. Milestone list
NEW QUESTION 327
Which of the following correctly describes when organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk?
- A. Risk management
- B. Risk analysis
- C. Risk attitude
- D. Risk tolerance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
11 PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT
[..]
Organizations perceive risk as the effect of uncertainty on projects and organizational objectives. Organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk depending on their risk attitude. The risk attitudes of both the organization and the stakeholders may be influenced by a number of factors, which are broadly classifed into three themes:
Risk appetite, which is the degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward.
Risk tolerance, which is the degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand.
Risk threshold, which refers to measures along the level of uncertainty or the level of impact at which a
stakeholder may have a specific interest. Below that risk threshold, the organization will accept the risk. Above that risk threshold, the organization will not tolerate the risk.
For example, an organization's risk attitude may include its appetite for uncertainty, its threshold for risk levels that are unacceptable, or its risk tolerance at which point the organization may select a different risk response.
Positive and negative risks are commonly referred to as opportunities and threats. The project may be accepted if the risks are within tolerances and are in balance with the rewards that may be gained by taking the risks. Positive risks that offer opportunities within the limits of risk tolerances may be pursued in order to generate enhanced value. For example, adopting an aggressive resource optimization technique is a risk taken in anticipation of a reward for using fewer resources.
NEW QUESTION 328
As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?
- A. BAC
- B. EAC
- C. ETC
- D. WBS
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 329
What are the two most common contract types used in a project?
- A. Time and material (T&M) contract and cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract
- B. Cost-reimbursable contract and time and material (T&M) contract
- C. Fixed price contract and cost-reimbursable contract
- D. Cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract and fixed price contract
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: https://pmstudycircle.com/2013/12/types-of-procurement-contracts-used-in-project-management/
NEW QUESTION 330
At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:
- A. high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
- B. high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
- C. low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
- D. low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 331
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project Integration Management?
- A. Project management software
- B. Issue log
- C. Expert judgment
- D. Records management system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
4.1.2.1 Expert Judgment
Expert judgment is often used to assess the inputs used to develop the project charter. Expert judgment is applied to all technical and management details during this process. Such expertise is provided by any group or individual with specialized knowledge or training and is available from many sources, including:
Other units within the organization,
Consultants,
Stakeholders, including customers or sponsors,
Professional and technical associations,
Industry groups,
Subject matter experts (SME), and
Project management office (PMO).
NEW QUESTION 332
Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?
- A. Estimate Costs
- B. Control Costs
- C. Determine Budget
- D. Plan Cost Management
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
7.4.3.2 Cost Forecasts
Either a calculated EAC value or a bottom-up EAC value is documented and communicated to stakeholders.
4.4.1.5 Work Performance Information
Work performance information is the performance data collected from various controlling processes, analyzed in context, and integrated based on relationships across areas. Thus work performance data has been transformed into work performance information. Data in itself cannot be used in the decision-making process as it has only out-of-context meaning. Work performance information, however, is correlated and contextualized, and provides a sound foundation for project decisions.
Work performance information is circulated through communication processes. Examples of performance information are status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete.
Process: 7.4 Control Costs
Definition: The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it determines the cost baseline against which project performance can be monitored and controlled.
Inputs
1. Project management plan
2. Project funding requirements
3. Work performance data
4. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Earned value management
2. Forecasting
3. To-complete performance index (TCPI)
4. Performance reviews
5. Project management software
6. Reserve analysis
Outputs
1. Work performance information
2. Cost forecasts
3. Change requests
4. Project management plan updates
5. Project documents updates
6. Organizational process assets updates
NEW QUESTION 333
Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
- A. Change request status updates
- B. Work performance information
- C. Organizational process assets updates
- D. Project management plan
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 334
A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?
- A. Strong
- B. Managed
- C. Weak
- D. Balanced
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project managers have the highest level of power and authority in a projectized organization. They also have high levels of power and authority in a strong matrix; however, a matrix organization is a blend of functional and projectized organizations, and therefore, the project manager does not have quite the same level of authority as they would in a projectized organization.
NEW QUESTION 335
Risk exists the moment that a project is:
- A. executed.
- B. chartered.
- C. planned.
- D. conceived.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
NEW QUESTION 336
Which items are components of a project management plan?
- A. Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information
- B. Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix
- C. Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars
- D. Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
NEW QUESTION 337
A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?
- A. Float
- B. Lead
- C. Slack
- D. Lag
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A lag is the amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.
For example, a technical writing team may begin editing the draft of a large document 15 days after they begin writing it.
Process: 6.3 Sequence Activities
Definition: The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it defines the logical sequence of work to obtain the greatest efficiency given all project constraints.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Activity list
3. Activity attributes
4. Milestone list
5. Project scope statement
6. Enterprise environmental factors
7. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
2. Dependency determination
3. Leads and lags
Outputs
1. Project schedule network diagrams
2. Project documents updates
NEW QUESTION 338
What are the objectives of initiation processes?
- A. Initiation processes are performed in order to obtain budget approval for a project or phase and approve scope with customers.
- B. Initiation processes are performed in order to develop the project charter and identify stakeholders.
- C. Initiation processes are performed to identify business objectives for a project or phase and identify stakeholders' goals.
- D. Initiation processes are performed to map initial requirements for a project or phase and prioritize them with stakeholders.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 339
When project requirements are documented in user stories then prioritized and refined just prior to construction, which approach is being used for scheduling?
- A. Life cycle scheduling with backlog
- B. Defining iterative activities
- C. Iterative scheduling with backlog
- D. On-demand scheduling
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
NEW QUESTION 340
What is the difference between iterative scheduling and on-demand scheduling practices?
- A. There are no relevant differences between these scheduling practices.
- B. Iterative scheduling is based on adaptive cycles; on-demand scheduling is based on the theory of constraints.
- C. Iterative scheduling is usually used in Kanban system.
- D. Iterative scheduling is based on the theory of constraints; on-demand scheduling is based on adaptive cycles.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 341
What is the difference between verified and accepted deliverables?
- A. Accepted deliverables have been formally accepted by the project manager; verified deliverables are the outputs from the Control Quality process
- B. Accepted deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness; verified deliverables have been formally approved by the customer or authorized stakeholder.
- C. Accepted deliverables have been inspected by the quality team; verified deliverables are outputs from the Validate Scope process.
- D. Accepted deliverables have been formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder; verified deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference: https://www.brainbok.com/guide/pmp/study-notes/verification-vs-validation/
NEW QUESTION 342
When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?
- A. At project initiation
- B. Throughout the life of the project
- C. At project milestones
- D. During work performance analysis
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 343
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