Latest 1z0-062 Actual Free Exam Updated 380 Questions [Q13-Q33]

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Latest 1z0-062 Actual Free Exam Updated 380 Questions

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NEW QUESTION 13
Examine the parameters for a database instance:

Which two statements are true?

  • A. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in a temporary tablespace.
  • B. No redo and undo records are generated for temporary tables.
  • C. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and logged in the redo only for those sessions
    where temporary undo is enabled.
  • D. No redo is generated for the undo records belonging to temporary tables.
  • E. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and logged in the redo.

Answer: B,C

 

NEW QUESTION 14
Your database has the SRV1 service configured for an application that runs on middle-tier application
server. The application has multiple modules. You enable tracing at the service level by executing the
following command:
SQL > exec DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE ('SRV1');
The possible outcome and actions to aggregate the trace files are as follows:
1. The command fails because a module name is not specified.
2. A trace file is created for each session that is running the SRV1 service.
3. An aggregated trace file is created for all the sessions that are running the SRV1 service.
4. The trace files may be aggregated by using the trcess utility.
5. The trace files be aggregated by using the tkprof utility.
Identify the correct outcome and the step to aggregate by using tkprof utility?

  • A. 3 and 4
  • B. 0
  • C. 2 and 4
  • D. 3 and 5
  • E. 2 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Tracing information is present in multiple trace files and you must use the trcsess tool to collect it into a
single file.
Incorrect:
Not 1: Parameter service_name
Name of the service for which tracing is enabled.
module_name
Name of the MODULE. An optional additional qualifier for the service.
Note:
* The procedure enables a trace for a given combination of Service, MODULE and ACTION name. The
specification is strictly hierarchical: Service Name or Service Name/MODULE, or Service Name, MODULE,
and ACTION name must be specified. Omitting a qualifier behaves like a wild-card, so that not specifying
an ACTION means all ACTIONs. Using the ALL_ACTIONS constant achieves the same purpose.
* SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE Procedure
This procedure will enable SQL tracing for a given combination of Service Name, MODULE and ACTION
globally unless an instance_name is specified.
* DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE(
service_name IN VARCHAR2,
module_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_MODULE,
action_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_ACTION,
waits IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT TRUE,
binds IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT FALSE,
instance_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL);

 

NEW QUESTION 15
CORRECT TEXT
You are using RMAN to back up your database. All the data files are in read/write mode.
Examine the RMAN configuration parameters:

Which two statements are true about a whole consistent backup of a database running in ARCHIVELOG mode? (Choose two.)

  • A. The system Change Number (SCN) is the same for all the data files in the backup.
  • B. The database must be in MOUNT state to take the backup.
  • C. The backup consists of blocks that have been formatted.
  • D. The database instance must be shut down to take the backup.
  • E. The backup can be used as an incremental level 0 backup.

Answer: C,E

 

NEW QUESTION 16
Examine the following parameters for a database instance:
MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0
MEMORY_TARGET=0
SGA_TARGET=0
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=500m
Which three initialization parameters are not controlled by Automatic Shared Memory
Management (ASMM)?

  • A. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
  • B. LOG_BUFFER
  • C. SORT_AREA_SIZE
  • D. DB_16K_CACHE_SZIE
  • E. STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
  • F. JAVA_POOL_SIZE

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
Manually Sized SGA Components that Use SGA_TARGET Space
SGA Component, Initialization Parameter
/ The log buffer
LOG_BUFFER
/ The keep and recycle buffer caches
DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
DB_RECYCLE_CACHE_SIZE
/ Nonstandard block size buffer caches
DB_nK_CACHE_SIZE
Note:
* In addition to setting SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value, you must set to zero all initialization parameters listedin the table below to enable full automatic tuning of the automatically sized SGA components.
* Table, Automatically Sized SGA Components and Corresponding Parameters

 

NEW QUESTION 17
Which three statements are true about Flashback Database? (Choose three.)

  • A. Flashback Database can recover a database to the state that it was in before a reset logs operation.
  • B. Flashback Database can recover a data file that was dropped during the span of time of the flashback.
  • C. Flashback Database uses a restored control file to recover a database.
  • D. The Oracle database automatically creates, deletes, and resides flashback logs in the Fast Recovery Area.
  • E. Flashback logs are written sequentially, and are archived.
  • F. Flashback logs are used to restore to the blocks' before images, and then the redo data may be used to roll forward to the desired flashback time.

Answer: A,D,F

 

NEW QUESTION 18
Identify two correct statements about multitenant architectures.

  • A. Multiple pluggable databases (PDBs) share certain multitenant container database (CDB) resources.
  • B. Multiple non-RAC CDB instances can mount the same PDB as long as they are on the same server.
  • C. Patches are always applied at the CDB level.
  • D. A PDB can have a private undo tablespace.
  • E. Multitenant architecture can be deployed only in a Real Application Clusters (RAC) configuration.
  • F. Multiple CDBs share certain PDB resources.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
B: Using 12c Resource manager you will be able control CPU, Exadata I/O, sessions and parallel servers. A new 12c CDB Resource Manager Plan will use so-called "Shares" (resource allocations) to specify how CPU is distributed between PDBs. A CDB Resource Manager Plan also can use "utilization limits" to limit the CPU usage for a PDB. With a default directive, you do not need to modify the resource plan for each PDB plug and unplug.
E: New paradigms for rapid patching and upgrades.
The investment of time and effort to patch one multitenant container database results in patching all of its many pluggable databases. To patch a single pluggable database, you simply unplug/plug to a multitenant container database at a different Oracle Database software version.
Incorrect:
Not A:
* The Oracle RAC documentation describes special considerations for a CDB in an Oracle RAC environment.
* Oracle Multitenant is a new option for Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition that helps customers reduce IT costs by simplifying consolidation, provisioning, upgrades, and more.
It is supported by a new architecture that allows a container database to hold many pluggable databases. And it fully complements other options, including Oracle Real Application Clusters and Oracle Active Data Guard.
An existing database can be simply adopted, with no change, as a pluggable database; and no changes are needed in the other tiers of the application.
Not D: You can unplug a PDB from one CDB and plug it into a different CDB without altering your schemas or applications. A PDB can be plugged into only one CDB at a time.
not F:
* UNDO tablespace can NOT be local and stays on the CDB level.
* Redo and undo go hand in hand, and so the CDB as a whole has a single undo tablespace per RAC instance.

 

NEW QUESTION 19
Examine the parameters for a database instance:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

  • A. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in a temporary tablespace.
  • B. No redo and undo records are generated for temporary tables.
  • C. No redo is generated for the undo records belonging to temporary tables.
  • D. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and logged in the redo.
  • E. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and logged in the redo only for those sessions where temporary undo is enabled.

Answer: A,B

 

NEW QUESTION 20
You administer an online transaction processing (OLTP) system whose database is stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM) and whose disk group use normal redundancy.
One of the ASM disks goes offline, and is then dropped because it was not brought online before DISK_REPAIR_TIME elapsed.
When the disk is replaced and added back to the disk group, the ensuing rebalance operation is too slow.
Which two recommendations should you make to speed up the rebalance operation if this type of failure happens again? (Choose two.)

  • A. Specify the statement that adds the disk back to the disk group.
  • B. Increase the number of DBWR_IO_SLAVES in the ASM instance.
  • C. Increase the number of ASMB processes.
  • D. Increase the value of the ASM_POWER_LIMIT parameter.
  • E. Set the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute to a lower value.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Explanation
A: ASM_POWER_LIMIT specifies the maximum power on an Automatic Storage Management instance for disk rebalancing. The higher the limit, the faster rebalancing will complete. Lower values will take longer, but consume fewer processing and I/O resources.
D:
* Normally a separate process is fired up to do that rebalance. This will take a certain amount of time. If you want it to happen faster, fire up more processes. You tell ASM it can add more processes by increasing the rebalance power.
* ASMB
ASM Background Process
Communicates with the ASM instance, managing storage and providing statistics Incorrect:
Not B: A higher, not a lower, value of DISK_REPAIR_TIME would be helpful here.
Not E: If you implement database writer I/O slaves by setting the DBWR_IO_SLAVES parameter, you configure a single (master) DBWR process that has slave processes that are subservient to it. In addition, I/O slaves can be used to "simulate" asynchronous I/O on platforms that do not support asynchronous I/O or implement it inefficiently. Database I/O slaves provide non-blocking, asynchronous requests to simulate asynchronous I/O.

 

NEW QUESTION 21
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following commands in the root container:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

  • A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
  • B. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
  • C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
  • D. The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not used.
  • E. The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
* You can include the CONTAINER clause in several SQL statements, such as the CREATE USER, ALTER USER, CREATE ROLE, GRANT, REVOKE, and ALTER SYSTEM statements.
* * CREATE ROLE with CONTAINER (optional) clause
/ CONTAINER = ALL
Creates a common role.
/ CONTAINER = CURRENT
Creates a local role in the current PDB.

 

NEW QUESTION 22
Examine the commands executed to monitor database operations:
$> conn sys oracle/oracle@prod as sysdba
SQL > VAR eid NUMBER
SQL > EXEC: eid := DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION ('batch_job' , FORCED_TRACKING
=> 'Y');
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

  • A. Database operations will be monitored only when they consume a significant amount of resource.
  • B. All subsequent statements in the session will be treated as one database operation and will be
    monitored.
  • C. Database operations will be monitored only if the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to TYPICAL
    and CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS is set DIAGNISTIC + TUNING.
  • D. Database operations for all sessions will be monitored.
  • E. Only DML and DDL statements will be monitored for the session.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: Setting the CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS initialization parameter to DIAGNOSTIC
+TUNING (default) enables monitoring of database operations. Real-Time SQL Monitoring is a feature of
the Oracle Database Tuning Pack.
Note:
* The DBMS_SQL_MONITOR package provides information about Real-time SQL Monitoring and Real-
time Database Operation Monitoring.
*(not B) BEGIN_OPERATION Function
starts a composite database operation in the current session.
/(E) FORCE_TRACKING - forces the composite database operation to be tracked when the operation
starts. You can also use the string variable 'Y'.
/(not A) NO_FORCE_TRACKING - the operation will be tracked only when it has consumed at least 5
seconds of CPU or I/O time. You can also use the string variable 'N'.

 

NEW QUESTION 23
Identify three benefits of Unified Auditing.

  • A. It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.
  • B. The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.
  • C. It improves overall auditing performance.
  • D. It guarantees zero-loss auditing.
  • E. Decreased use of storage to store audit trail rows in the database.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:
A: Starting with 12c, Oracle has unified all of the auditing types into one single unit called Unified auditing. You don't have to turn on or off all of the different auidting types individually and as a matter of fact auditing is enabled by default right out of the box. The AUD$ and FGA$ tables have been replaced with one single audit trail table. All of the audit data is now stored in Secure Files table thus improving the overall management aspects of audit data itself.
B: Further the audit data can also be buffered solving most of the common performance related problems seen on busy environments.
E: Unified Auditing is able to collect audit data for Fine Grained Audit, RMAN, Data Pump, Label Security, Database Vault and Real Application Security operations.
Note:
* Benefits of the Unified Audit Trail
The benefits of a unified audit trail are many:
/ (B) Overall auditing performance is greatly improved. The default mode that unified audit works is Queued Write mode. In this mode, the audit records are batched in SGA queue and is persisted in a periodic way. Because the audit records are written to SGA queue, there is a significant performance improvement.
/ The unified auditing functionality is always enabled and does not depend on the initialization parameters that were used in previous releases
/ (A) The audit records, including records from the SYS audit trail, for all the audited components of your Oracle Database installation are placed in one location and in one format, rather than your having to look in different places to find audit trails in varying formats. This consolidated view enables auditors to co-relate audit information from different components. For example, if an error occurred during an INSERT statement, standard auditing can indicate the error number and the SQL that was executed. Oracle Database Vault-specific information can indicate whether this error happened because of a command rule violation or realm violation. Note that there will be two audit records with a distinct AUDIT_TYPE. With this unification in place, SYS audit records appear with AUDIT_TYPE set to Standard Audit.
/ The management and security of the audit trail is also improved by having it in single audit trail.
/ You can create named audit policies that enable you to audit the supported components listed at the beginning of this section, as well as SYS administrative users. Furthermore, you can build conditions and exclusions into your policies.
* Oracle Database 12c Unified Auditing enables selective and effective auditing inside the Oracle database using policies and conditions. The new policy based syntax simplifies management of auditing within the database and provides the ability to accelerate auditing based on conditions.
* The new architecture unifies the existing audit trails into a single audit trail, enabling simplified management and increasing the security of audit data generated by the database.

 

NEW QUESTION 24
The HR.DEPARTMENTS table is the parent of the HR.EMPLOYEES table. The
EMPLOYEES.DEPARTMENT_ID column has a foreign key constraint with the ON DELETE CASCADE option that refers to the DEPARTMENTS.DEPARTMENT_ID column.
An index exists on the DEPARTMENTS.DEPARTMENT_ID column. A transaction deletes a primary key in the DEPARTMENTS table, which has child rows in the EMPLOYEES table.
Which statement is true?

  • A. The transaction acquires a table lock on the EMPLOYEES table. This lock enables other sessions to query but not update the EMPLOYEES table until the transaction on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.
  • B. The transaction acquires a table lock on the DEPARTMENTS table. This lock enables other sessions to query but not update the DEPARTMENTS table until the transaction on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.
  • C. The transaction acquires a table lock only on the DEPARTMENTS table until the transaction is complete.
  • D. Only the rows that are deleted in the DEPARTMENTS and EMPLOYEES tables are locked until the transactions on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 25
You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.
Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection?

  • A. Stack space
  • B. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
  • C. Private SQL area
  • D. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements
  • E. User session data

Answer: C,E

Explanation:
A: PGA itself is subdivided. The UGA (User Global Area) contains session state information, including stuff like package-levelvariables, cursor state, etc. Note that, with shared server, the UGA is in the SGA. It has to be, because shared server means that the session state needs to be accessible to all server processes, as any one of them could be assigned a particular session.However, with dedicated server (which likely what you're using), the UGA is allocated in the PGA.
C: The Location of a private SQL area depends on the type of connection established for a session. If a session is connected through a dedicated server, private SQL areas are located in the serverprocess' PGA. However, if a session is connected through a shared server, part of the private SQL area is kept in the SGA.
Note:
* System global area (SGA)
The SGA is a group of shared memory structures, known as SGA components, that contain data and control information for one Oracle Database instance. The SGA is shared by all server and background processes. Examples of data stored in the SGA include cached data blocks and shared SQL areas.
* Program global area(PGA)
A PGA is a memory region that contains data and control information for a server process.
It is nonshared memory created by Oracle Database when a server process is started.
Access to the PGA is exclusive to the server process. There is one PGA foreach server process. Background processes also allocate their own PGAs. The total memory used by all individual PGAs is known as the total instance PGA memory, and the collection of individual PGAs is referred to as the total instance PGA, or just instancePGA. You use database initialization parameters to set the size of the instance PGA, not individual PGAs.
References:

 

NEW QUESTION 26
In your production database, data manipulation language (DML) operations are executed on the SALES table.
You have noticed some dubious values in the SALES table during the last few days. You are able to track users, actions taken, and the time of the action for this particular period but the changes in data are not tracked.
You decide to keep track of both the old data and new data in the table long with the user information.
What action would you take to achieve this task?

  • A. Apply fine-grained auditing.
  • B. Impose standard database auditing to audit SQL statements.
  • C. Impose standard database auditing to audit object privileges.
  • D. Implement value-based auditing.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 27
Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server is installed on your production host before installing the Oracle Database server. The database and listener are configured by using Oracle Restart.
Examine the following command and its output:
$ crsctl config has
CRS-4622: Oracle High Availability Services auto start is enabled.
What does this imply?

  • A. When you start an instance on a high with SQL *Plus dependent listeners and ASM disk groups are automatically started.
  • B. When you create a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
  • C. When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance is still started.
  • D. When a database is created by using SQL* Plus, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
About Startup Dependencies
Oracle Restart ensures that Oracle components are started in the proper order, in accordance with component dependencies. For example, if database files are stored in Oracle ASM disk groups, then before starting the database instance, Oracle Restart ensures that the Oracle ASM instance is started and the required disk groups are mounted. Likewise, if a component must be shut down, Oracle Restart ensures that dependent components are cleanly shut down first.
Oracle Restart also manages the weak dependency between database instances and the Oracle Net listener (the listener): When a database instance is started, Oracle Restart attempts to start the listener. If the listener startup fails, then the database is still started. If the listener later fails, Oracle Restart does not shut down and restart any database instances.
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17636/restart.htm#ADMIN12710

 

NEW QUESTION 28
You install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server.
Which two components are automatically included in the Oracle Restart configuration? (Choose two.)

  • A. A pre-existing database
  • B. A pre-existing Oracle Net Listener
  • C. Oracle Notification services
  • D. Oracle CSSDservice
  • E. A pre-existing Oracle management agent

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/LADBI/oraclerestart.htm#LADBI999

 

NEW QUESTION 29
Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?

  • A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
  • B. It writes when a user commits a transaction.
  • C. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
  • D. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
References:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/process.htm (see log writer process (LGWR))

 

NEW QUESTION 30
Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is enabled for your database instance. You execute the following
command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE = 100M;
Which statement is true?

  • A. It succeeds and the minimum size for the DEFAULT buffer pool is set to 100M.
  • B. It fails because DB_CACHE_SIZE is a static initialization parameter.
  • C. It fails because ASMM is enabled and individual SGA components cannot be sized.
  • D. It succeeds and the value is changed in the SPFILE immediately, but the change takes effect only at the next
    instance startup.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 31
What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

  • A. The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
  • B. The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.
  • C. The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
  • D. The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The stop_on_window_close attribute controls whether the GATHER_STATS_JOB continues when the maintenance window closes. The default setting for the stop_on_window_close attribute is TRUE, causing Scheduler to terminate
GATHER_STATS_JOB when the maintenance window closes. The remaining objects are then processed in the next maintenance window.
References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14211/stats.htm#g49431

 

NEW QUESTION 32
The HR user executes the following query on the EMPLOYEES table but does not issue COMMIT, ROLLBACK, or any data definition language (DDL) command after that:

HR then opens a second session.
Which two operations wait when executed in HR's second session? (Choose two.)

  • A. SELECT job FROM employees WHERE job='CLERK' FOR UPDATE OF empno;
  • B. INSERT INTO employees(empno,ename) VALUES (1289, 'Dick');
  • C. SELECT empno,ename FROM employees WHERE job='CLERK';
  • D. INSERT INTO employees(empno,ename,job) VALUES (2001,'Harry','CLERK);
  • E. LOCK TABLE employees IN EXCLUSIVE MODE;

Answer: A,E

 

NEW QUESTION 33
......


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