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What is CompTIA SK0-005 Certification Exam
CompTIA SK0-005 is a global level recognized certification offered by CompTIA. If you have basic knowledge of network and security fundamentals, the SK0-005 exam validates your skills to communicate with technical personnel and recognize network technologies, installation, and configuration. This exam also enhances your troubleshooting skills and ability to manage, maintain, and troubleshoot network infrastructure.
CompTIA SK0-005 is an internationally-recognized validation that identifies persons who earn it as possessing skilled as an CompTIA SK0-005. If you are new to the IT certification world, it's very easy to be confused by the different certifications and have no clue where to start your IT career journey. While CompTIA SK0-005 is aimed at the intermediate level of IT professionals, it is still a valuable certification for you if you want to enter into the IT world. CompTIA SK0-005 exam dumps are the right place to pass the exam in your first attempt.
CompTIA SK0-005 exam covers a range of topics, including server architecture, storage systems, networking, virtualization, security, troubleshooting, and disaster recovery. SK0-005 exam consists of 90 multiple-choice questions that need to be completed within 90 minutes. The passing score for the exam is 750 out of 900.
NEW QUESTION # 43
A backup application is copying only changed files each time it runs. During a restore, however, only a single file is used. Which of the following backup methods does this describe?
- A. Open file
- B. Synthetic full
- C. Full differential
- D. Full incremental
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
This is the best description of a synthetic full backup method because it creates a full backup by combining previous incremental backups with the latest backup. An incremental backup copies only the files that have changed since the last backup, while a full backup copies all the files. A synthetic full backup reduces the storage space and network bandwidth required for backups, while also simplifying the restore process by using a single file. References:
https://www.veritas.com/support/en_US/doc/129705091-129705095-0/br731_wxrt-tot_v131910378-129705095
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following are measures that should be taken when a data breach occurs? (Select TWO).
- A. Disable unnecessary ports.
- B. Identify the exploited vulnerability.
- C. Disclose the incident.
- D. Restore the data from backup.
- E. Run an antivirus scan.
- F. Move the data to a different location.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
These are two measures that should be taken when a data breach occurs. A data breach is an unauthorized or illegal access to confidential or sensitive data by an internal or external actor. A data breach can result in financial losses, reputational damage, legal liabilities, and regulatory penalties for the affected organization.
Disclosing the incident is a measure that involves informing the relevant stakeholders, such as customers, employees, partners, regulators, and law enforcement, about the nature, scope, and impact of the data breach.
Disclosing the incident can help to mitigate the negative consequences of the data breach, comply with legal obligations, and restore trust and confidence. Identifying the exploited vulnerability is a measure that involves investigating and analyzing the root cause and source of the data breach. Identifying the exploited vulnerability can help to prevent further data loss, remediate the security gaps, and improve the security posture of the organization. Restoring the data from backup is a measure that involves recovering the lost or corrupted data from a secondary storage device or location. However, this does not address the underlying issue of how the data breach occurred or prevent future breaches. Disabling unnecessary ports is a measure that involves closing or blocking network communication endpoints that are not required for legitimate purposes. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited.
Running an antivirus scan is a measure that involves detecting and removing malicious software from a system or network. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited. Moving the data to a different location is a measure that involves transferring the data to another storage device or location that may be more secure or less accessible. However, this does not address how the data breach occurred or what vulnerability was exploited. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/428483
/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/ https://www.howtogeek.com/202794/what-is-the- difference-between-127.0.0.1-and-0.0.0.0/ https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs- system-drive-removable-devices-and-individual-files/
NEW QUESTION # 45
A server administrator is taking advantage of all the available bandwidth of the four NICs on the server. Which of the following NIC-teaming technologies should the server administrator utilize?
- A. Load balancing
- B. Fault tolerance
- C. Fail over
- D. Link aggregation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Link aggregation is a technique that combines multiple physical network links into one logical link with higher bandwidth and redundancy. It can take advantage of all the available bandwidth of the NICs (Network Interface Cards) on the server and provide load balancing and failover capabilities for network traffic. Verified References: [Link aggregation], [NIC]
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following testing exercises for disaster recovery is primarily used to discuss incident response strategies for critical systems without affecting production data?
- A. Backup recovery test
- B. Lrverail over
- C. Tabletcp
- D. Hot-site visit audit
Answer: C
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that is primarily used to discuss incident response strategies for critical systems without affecting production data. A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based session where team members meet in an informal, classroom setting to review their roles and responsibilities during an emergency and their responses to a hypothetical scenario. A facilitator guides the participants through the discussion and evaluates the strengths and weaknesses of the preparedness program. A tabletop exercise does not involve any actual deployment of resources or activation of systems12. A backup recovery test (B) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves restoring data from backup media to verify its integrity and availability. A backup recovery test may affect production data if it is not performed on a separate environment. A live failover © is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves switching operations from a primary site to a secondary site in case of a failure or disruption. A live failover may affect production data if it is not performed on a simulated environment. A hot-site visit audit (D) is a type of disaster recovery testing exercise that involves inspecting and evaluating a hot site, which is a backup location that has fully operational equipment and resources to resume business operations in case of a disaster. A hot-site visit audit does not involve any discussion of incident response strategies or simulation of scenarios. Reference: 1 https://www.ready.gov/testing-exercises 2 https://www.ready.gov/exercises
NEW QUESTION # 47
An administrator is setting up a new employee's read/write access to a document on the file server. Currently, the user can open the file, but edits cannot be saved. Which of the following should the administrator do so the user can save the updated file while maintaining least-privilege access?
- A. Give the user "modify" rights to the file.
- B. Give the user "full control" rights to the folder.
- C. Give the user "list folder contents" rights to the folder.
- D. Give the user "read and execute" rights to the file.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To enable a user to both read and write to a file, the administrator needs to provide "modify" rights. This permission level allows the user not only to open and view the file (read) but also to make changes and save those changes back to the file (write). "Read and execute" rights would allow the user to open and run the file but not make any changes. "List folder contents" rights would enable the user to view the files within a folder but not make changes to them. "Full control" rights would provide the user with complete control over the file, including the ability to change permissions and delete the file, which exceeds the principle of least-privilege access necessary for this task.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following encryption methodologies would MOST likely be used to ensure encrypted data cannot be retrieved if a device is stolen?
- A. Public key encryption
- B. Encryption in transit
- C. Encryption at rest
- D. End-to-end encryption
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Encryption at rest is a type of encryption methodology that would most likely be used to ensure encrypted data cannot be retrieved if a device is stolen. Encryption at rest is a process of encrypting stored data on a device such as a hard drive, SSD, USB flash drive, or mobile device. This way, if the device is lost or stolen, the data cannot be accessed without the encryption key or password. Encryption at rest can be implemented using software tools such as BitLocker on Windows or FileVault on Mac OS, or hardware features such as self-encrypting drives or Trusted Platform Module chips. End-to-end encryption is a type of encryption methodology that ensures encrypted data cannot be intercepted or modified by third parties during transmission over a network. Encryption in transit is a type of encryption methodology that protects encrypted data while it is moving from one location to another over a network. Public key encryption is a type of encryption algorithm that uses a pair of keys: a public key that can be shared with anyone and a private key that is kept secret by the owner. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/196541/bitlocker-101-what-it-is-how-it-works-and-how-to-use-it/
https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-drive-removable-devices-and-individua
https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/https://www.howto
NEW QUESTION # 49
Users at a company work with highly sensitive dat
a. The security department implemented an administrative and technical control to enforce least-privilege access assigned to files. However, the security department has discovered unauthorized data exfiltration. Which of the following is the BEST way to protect the data from leaking?
- A. Install a DLP solution.
- B. Enforce the lock-screen feature.
- C. Utilize privacy screens.
- D. Implement disk quotas.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Components of a Data Loss Solution
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is a system that scans outgoing email for account numbers, sensitive phrases, and other forms of Pll?
- A. SIEM
- B. HIDS
- C. DLP
- D. IPS
Answer: C
Explanation:
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention and it is a system that scans outgoing email for account numbers, sensitive phrases, and other forms of PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can help prevent data breaches, comply with regulations, and protect the privacy of customers and employees. DLP can also block, encrypt, or quarantine emails that contain sensitive data. References: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 3.2)
NEW QUESTION # 51
A company is reviewing options for its current disaster recovery plan and potential changes to it. The security team will not allow customer data to egress to non-company equipment, and the company has requested recovery in the shortest possible time. Which of the following will BEST meet these goals?
- A. A cold site
- B. A warm site
- C. Cloud recovery
- D. A hot site
Answer: D
Explanation:
A hot site is a type of disaster recovery site that has all the equipment and data ready to resume operations as soon as possible after a disaster. A hot site is usually located in a different geographic area than the primary site and has redundant power, cooling, network, and security systems. A hot site is best for the company that wants to recover in the shortest possible time and does not want customer data to egress to non-company equipment. A warm site is a type of disaster recovery site that has some equipment and data ready, but requires some configuration and restoration before resuming operations. A cold site is a type of disaster recovery site that has only basic infrastructure and space available, but requires significant setup and installation before resuming operations. Cloud recovery is a type of disaster recovery service that uses cloud-based resources and platforms to store backups and restore data and applications after a disaster. Reference: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11172/hot-site https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11173/warm-site https://www.techopedia.com/definition/11174/cold-site https://www.techopedia.com/definition/29836/cloud-recovery
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following security risks provides unauthorized access to an application?
- A. Social engineering
- B. Backdoor
- C. Insider threat
- D. Data corruption
Answer: B
Explanation:
A backdoor is a security risk that provides unauthorized access to an application. A backdoor is a hidden or undocumented way of bypassing the normal authentication or encryption mechanisms of an application, allowing an attacker to gain remote access, execute commands, or steal data. A backdoor can be created intentionally by the developer, maliciously by an attacker, or unintentionally by a programming error. Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.2: Given a scenario, apply logical access control methods.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following technologies would allow an administrator to build a software RAID on a Windows server?
- A. Dynamic disk
- B. GPT
- C. Logical volume management
- D. UEFI
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dynamic disk is a technology that allows an administrator to build a software RAID on a Windows server.
Dynamic disk is a type of disk management that supports creating volumes that span multiple disks, stripe data across disks, mirror data between disks, or use parity for fault tolerance. Dynamic disk can be used to create RAID 0 (striping), RAID 1 (mirroring), RAID 5 (striping with parity), or spanned volumes on Windows servers. Logical volume management is a technology that allows creating and resizing logical volumes on Linux servers. GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a standard for defining the partition structure on a disk. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a specification for the interface between the operating system and the firmware. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/school/using-windows-admin-tools-like-a-pro/lesson2/
https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/40702/how-to-manage-and-use-lvm-logical-volume-management-in-ubuntu
https://www.howtogeek.com/193669/whats-the-difference-between-gpt-and-mbr-when-partitioning-a-drive/
https://www.howtogeek.com/56958/htg-explains-how-uefi-will-replace-the-bios/
NEW QUESTION # 54
A startup company needs to set up an initial disaster recovery site. The site must be cost-effective and deployed quickly. Which of the following sites should the company set up?
- A. Hot
- B. Colocated
- C. Warm
- D. Cold
Answer: D
Explanation:
A cold site is a backup facility with little or no hardware equipment installed. A cold site is the most cost-effective option among the three disaster recovery sites. However, due to the fact that a cold site doesn't have any pre-installed equipment, it takes a lot of time to properly set it up so as to fully resume business operations1.
References = 1: Disaster Recovery Sites Comparison: Which one to Choose? - NAKIVO(https://www.nakivo.com/blog/overview-disaster-recovery-sites/)
NEW QUESTION # 55
A server room with many racks of servers is managed remotely with occasional on-site support.
Which of the following would be the MOST cost-effective option to administer and troubleshoot network problems locally on the servers?
- A. Management port
- B. Crash cart
- C. IP KVM
- D. KVM
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 56
An administrator needs to reconfigure a teamed network connection on a server in a remote data center.
Which of the following will offer the most resilient connection while performing this change?
- A. Use of an 00B solution
- B. Use of an RDP console
- C. Use of a crash cart
- D. Use of a VNC console
Answer: A
Explanation:
An out-of-band (OOB) solution is a method of accessing and managing a server remotely without using the network connection or the operating system of the server. An OOB solution can use a dedicated management port, a serial console, or a KVM switch to provide a resilient connection while performing changes to the network configuration of the server. An OOB solution is more reliable than a VNC or RDP console, which depend on the network and the operating system, and more convenient than a crash cart, which requires physical access to the server.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2, Lesson 2.3, Objective 2.3
NEW QUESTION # 57
A server administrator wants to check the open ports on a server. Which of the following commands should the administrator use to complete the task?
- A. nbtstat
- B. nslookup
- C. telnet
- D. netstat -a
Answer: D
Explanation:
netstat is a command-line tool that displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more.
The -a option shows all listening and non-listening sockets on the server. This can help check the open ports on a server and identify any unwanted or malicious connections. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat
NEW QUESTION # 58
A technician has moved a data drive from a new Windows server to an order Windows server. The hardware recognizes the drive, but the data is not visible to the OS. Which of the following is the MOST Likely cause of the issue?
- A. The -partition is formatted with FAT32.
- B. The disk uses GPT.
- C. The partition is formatted with ext4.
- D. The disk uses MBn.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that allows creating partitions on large hard drives (more than 2 TB). It supports up to 128 partitions per drive and uses 64-bit addresses to locate them. However, GPT is not compatible with older versions of Windows, such as Windows XP or Windows Server 2003, which use MBR (Master Boot Record) as the partitioning scheme. If a disk uses GPT, it may not be recognized or accessible by an older Windows server. Verified References: [GPT], [MBR]
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following documents would explain the consequences of server downtime?
- A. Business continuity plan
- B. Business impact analysis
- C. Service-level agreement
- D. Disaster recovery plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
A business impact analysis (BIA) is a document that outlines the potential effects of downtime on business operations. It identifies critical business functions and estimates the impact of disruption on the organization's ability to function.
* Business impact analysis (Answer D): This document is specifically designed to assess the consequences of downtime and other disruptions.
* Service-level agreement (Option A): Defines the expected level of service between a provider and a client but doesn't directly explain downtime consequences.
* Business continuity plan (Option B): Outlines how the business will continue operating during a disruption but doesn't focus solely on the consequences of downtime.
* Disaster recovery plan (Option C): Focuses on restoring systems after a disaster but doesn't outline the specific impact of downtime.
CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Explain disaster recovery concepts.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A server administrator has been asked to implement a password policy that will help mitigate the chance of a successful brute-force attack. Which of the following password policies should the administrator implement first?
- A. Minimum age
- B. Length
- C. Complexity
- D. Lockout
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Password length is the first password policy that the administrator should implement to help mitigate the chance of a successful brute-force attack. A brute-force attack is a method of guessing passwords by trying all possible combinations of characters until the correct one is found. The longer the password, the more combinations there are, and the more time and resources it takes to crack it. Therefore, password length is a key factor in password strength and security.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.2, Objective 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 61
A server administrator needs to ensure all Window-based servers within a data center have RDP disabled. There are thousands of servers performing various roles. Which of the following is the best way to meet this requirement?
- A. Run chkconfig --1eve1 345 RDP off.
- B. Create a Bash shell script to disable the Windows Remote Management service.
- C. Run chkconfig -- list RDP.
- D. Create a GPO to disable the Windows Remote Management service.
- E. Create a PowerSheII script to disable the RDP service.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The best way to meet this requirement is to create a PowerShell script to disable the RDP service on all Windows-based servers within a data center. PowerShell is a scripting language and command-line tool that can be used to automate tasks and manage Windows systems remotely. A PowerShell script can use cmdlets (commands) and parameters to perform actions on multiple servers at once, such as disabling a service or changing a configuration setting. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is a service that allows remote access and control of a Windows system through a graphical user interface. Disabling RDP can improve security by preventing unauthorized or malicious access to the servers.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.3, Objective 4.3; Chapter 7, Lesson 7.1, Objective 7.1
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following ensures a secondary network path is available if the primary connection fails?
- A. Fault tolerance
- B. Most recently used
- C. Heartbeat
- D. Link aggregation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fault tolerance is the ability of a system to continue functioning in the event of a failure of one or more of its components. Fault tolerance can ensure a secondary network path is available if the primary connection fails. Fault tolerance can be achieved by using redundant components, such as network cards, cables, switches, routers, etc., that can take over the function of the failed component without interrupting the service. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 2.2)
NEW QUESTION # 63
A company wants to find an affordable way to simulate a fail over of a critical application. The company does not currently have a solution for it. The application consists of 15 servers, and the company would like to simulate on production configurations and IP address schemes. Which of the following would be the most cost-effective solution?
- A. Build a hot site and perform a fail over of the application.
- B. Build a warm site and perform a fail over of the application.
- C. Build a cloud laaS and perform a fail over of the application.
- D. Perform a tabletop fail over of the application.
- E. Build a cold site and perform a fail over of the application.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Lower cost: Cloud IaaS can reduce the capital and operational expenses of building and maintaining a physical disaster recovery site, as users only pay for the resources they use on demand12.
Scalability: Cloud IaaS can offer flexible and elastic scalability of resources, as users can easily provision or deprovision resources according to their needs and workload12.
Availability: Cloud IaaS can ensure high availability and reliability of the application, as users can leverage the cloud provider's redundant and geographically distributed infrastructure12.
Simplicity: Cloud IaaS can simplify the failover process, as users can use the cloud provider's tools and services to automate and orchestrate the failover operations12.
Therefore, building a cloud IaaS and performing a failover of the application would be the most cost-effective solution for the company, as it would allow them to simulate a failover of a critical application on production configurations and IP address schemes without investing in a physical disaster recovery site.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following describes a configuration in winch both nodes of a redundant system respond to service requests whenever possible?
- A. Active-passive
- B. Failover
- C. Active-active
- D. Fallback
Answer: C
Explanation:
Active-active is a configuration in which both nodes of a redundant system respond to service requests whenever possible. It can improve the performance, availability, and load balancing of the system by distributing the workload among the nodes. However, it also requires more synchronization and coordination between the nodes to avoid conflicts or errors. Verified Reference: [Active-active], [Redundant system]
NEW QUESTION # 65
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