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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Syllabus Topics:

Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Sample Questions:

1. A 20-year-old nulligravid woman presents with severe pain during menstruation. She is unable to take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and is adamant about not taking any hormonal therapy. She has questions about non-medicinal therapeutic options. Which one of the following recommendations is the most appropriate?

A) Spinal manipulation
B) Laparoscopic uterine nerve ablation (LUNA)
C) Massage therapy
D) Progesterone-releasing intrauterine device
E) High-frequency transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

2. A 26-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, presents for her 1st antenatal visit. She states she is at 26 weeks ' gestation and is healthy. On abdominal examination, her fundus is palpated at the umbilicus. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this finding?

A) Oligohydramnios
B) Dating error
C) Intrauterine growth restriction
D) Bicornuate uterus
E) Partial hydatidiform mole

3. A 60-year-old man presents to the office with concerns regarding a pruritic rash, which he has had for several years. He reports a "crawling" sensation on his skin. He is concerned that this rash may be caused by a parasite he may have picked up while serving in the military overseas. On examination, you note multiple crusted lesions on his forearms, neck, chest, scalp, and thighs. There is a complete sparing of the skin on his back. He brought a bottle with fibrous material of different colours that he picked from his wounds. He is otherwise healthy and reports no other symptoms except some chronic fatigue and insomnia related to the itching. Which one of the following treatments is the most appropriate?

A) Doxycycline
B) Fluconazole
C) Ivermectin
D) Permethrin
E) Butenafine

4. A 20-year-old woman from a remote northern community presents to the office with a 2-week history of malaise and a 2-day history of disabling pain in her left elbow. She had a sore throat 4 weeks ago. She also notes that she has had 2 weeks of pain and swelling in her right knee, followed by pain and swelling in her left elbow. On examination, you note 0.5-cm to 1-cm nodules just above both her elbows. You find no active joint swelling. An electrocardiogram shows a prolonged PR interval. Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation?

A) Excisional biopsy of nodules.
B) Pharyngeal culture.
C) Antistreptolysin O titre.
D) Echocardiography.
E) Rheumatoid factor.

5. A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding her persistent primary immune thrombocytopenic purpura. She was admitted to hospital with a relapse and received treatment with dexamethasone, intravenous immunoglobulin, and rituximab. She was recently discharged from hospital with a platelet count of 55 × 10#/L (130-360), and also continues to take 10 mg of prednisone once daily. She is scheduled for a splenectomy in 4 weeks. Which one of the following is the best next step in preparation for the patient ' s surgical procedure?

A) Start calcium and vitamin D supplementation
B) Arrange for preoperative vaccination
C) Prescribe daily azithromycin 1 week preoperatively
D) Transfuse 5 units of platelets 1 week preoperatively
E) Stop prednisone 2 weeks preoperatively

Solutions: